# IIT-JEE 2010 Paper I Solutions

PAPER - I
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1.
(1)
(2) x
(3)
(4)

Ans : (3)

2. Consider the two curves
C1 : y2 = 4x
C2 : x2 + y2 - 6x + 1 = 0
Then,
(1) C1 and C2 touch each other only at one point
(2) C1 and C2 touch each other exactly at two points
(3) C1 and C2 intersect (but do not touch) at exactly two points
(4) C1 and C2 neither intersect nor touch each other

Ans : (2)

x2 + 4x - 6x + = 0
(x - 1)2 = 0
x = 1, 1
touch each other exactly two points.

3. The edges of a parallelopiped are of unit length and are parallel to non-coplanar unit vectors such that
Then, the volume of the parallelopiped is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1)

4. Let a and b be non-zero real numbers. Then, the equation (ax2 + by2 + c) (x2 - 5xy + 6y2) = 0 represents
(1) four straight lines, when c = 0 and a, b are of the same sign
(2) two straight lines and a circle, when a = b, and c is of sign opposite to that of a
(3) two straight lines and a hyperbola, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign opposite to that of a
(4) a circle and an ellipse, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign opposite to that of a.

Ans : (2)

5.
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

Ans : (3)

The total number of local maximum or minimum = 2.

6. and let p be the left hand derivative of
(1) n = 1, m = 1
(2) n = 1, m = -1
(3) n = 2, m = 2
(4) n > 2, m = n

Ans : (3)
According to question we get,

SECTION II

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

7. Let P (x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2), y1 <>2 <>2 + 4y2 = 4. The equations of parabolas with latus rectum PQ are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2, 3)

8. A straight line through the vertex P of a triangle PQR intersects the side QR at the point S and the circumcircle of the triangle PQR at the point T. If S is not the centre of the circumcircle, then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (4)

9. Let f(x) be a non-constant twice differentiable function defined 0. Then,
(1) f''(x) vanishes at least twice on [0, 1]
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1, 2, 3, 4)
(1)

(2)
f(x) = f(1-x)
f''(x) = -f''(1-x)
f ''(1/2) = -f''(1/2)
f ''(1/2) = 0.
(3)

(4)

10.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1, 4)

Hence 1 & 4 are correct.

SECTION - III
Assertion - Reason Type

This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

11. Consider the system of equations
x - 2y + 3z = - 1
-x + y - 2z = k
x - 3y + 4z = 1
STATEMENT-1: The system of equations has no solutions for k 3
and
STATEMENT-2:
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (1)

12. Consider the system of equations ax + by = 0, cx + dy = 0, where a, b, c, d {0, 1}
STATEMENT-1: The probability that the system of equations has a unique solution is 3/8
and
STATEMENT-2: The probability that the system of equations has a solution is 1.
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (2)

The probability that system of equations has unique solution = 6/16 = 3/8
II. Homogenous system is always consistent

13. Let f and g be real valued functions defined on interval (-1, 1) such that g''(x) is continuous g(0) 0, g''(0) = 0
STATEMENT-1:
and
STATEMENT-2: f''(0) = g(0)
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (2)

14. Consider three planes P1 : x - y + z = 1
P2 : x + y - z = - 1
P3 : x - 3y + 3z = 2
Let L1 , L2, L3 be the lines of intersection of the planes P2 and P3, P3 and P1, and P1 and P2, respectively
STATEMENT-1: At least two of the lines L1, L2 and L3 are non-parallel
and
STATEMENT-2: The three planes do not have a common point
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (4)
L1, L2, L3 are parallel to each other
statement (1) is not true

SECTION - IV

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 15 to 17

Let A, B, C be three sets of complex numbers as defined below

15. The number of element in the set A B C is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4)

Ans : (2)

From graph only one point in A B C

16. Let z be any point in A B C. Then, |z + 1 - i|2 + |z - 5 - i|2 lies between
(1) 25 and 29
(2) 30 and 34
(3) 35 and 39
(4) 40 and 44

Ans : (3)

|z + 1 - i|2 + |z - 5 - i|2
= PR2 + PQ2 = RQ2 = 62 = 36

17. Let z be any point in A B C and let w be any point satisfying |w - 2 - i| < 3. Then, |z| - |w| + 3 lies between
(1) -6 and 3
(2) -3 and 6
(3) -6 and 6
(4) -3 and 9

Ans : (4)

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 18 to 20

A circle C of radius 1 is inscribed in an equilateral triangle PQR. The points of contact of C with the sides PQ, QR, RP are D,E, F, respectively. The line PQ is given by the equation Further, it is given that the origin and the centre of C are on the same side of the line PQ.

18. The equation of circle C is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (4)

19. Points E and F are given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1)

20. Equations of the sides QR, RP are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (4)

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 21 to 23

Consider the functions defined implicitly by the equation y3 - 3y + x = 0 on various intervals in the real line. the equation implicitly defines a unique real valued differentiable function y = f(x).
If x (-2, 2), the equation implicitly defines a unique real valued differentiable function y = g(x) satisfying g (0) = 0.

21.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2)

22. The area of the region bounded by the curve y = f(x), the x-axis, and the lines x = a and x = b, where - < a < b < -2, is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1)

23.
(1) 2g(-1)
(2) 0
(3) -2g (1)
(4) 2g(1)

Ans : (4)

PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

24. Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3V battery. If the power dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3, respectively, then
Figure :

(1) P1 > P2 > P3
(2) P1 > P3 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1.

Ans : (3)
The resistor configurations reduce to

(3) is correct.

25. Students I, II and III perform an experiment for measuring the acceleration due to gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. They use different lengths of the pendulum and/or record time for different number of oscillations. The observations are shown in the table.
Least count for length = 0.1 cm
Least count for time = 0.1 s.

(1) EI = 0
(2) EI is minimum
(3) EI = EII
(4) EII is maximum.

Ans :

E1 is the minimum correct choice is (2)

26. Which one of the following statement is WRONG in the context of X-rays generated from X-ray tube ?
(1) wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target increases
(2) cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target
(3) intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray tube
(4) cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in the X-ray tube.

Ans : (2)
Cut-off wavelength depends upon accelerating potential.
(2) is the correct choice.

27. Two beams of red and violet colours are made to pass separately through a prism (angle of the prism is 60º). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of refraction will be
(1) 30º for both the colours
(2) greater for the violet colour
(3) greater for the red colour
(4) equal but not 30º for both the colours.

Ans : (1)
In the position of minimum deviation

(1) is correct.

28. A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density

where 0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of the gravitational field of particles. Its speed V as a function of distance from the centre of the system is represented by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (3)

(3) is correct.

29. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (3)

(3) is correct.

SECTION II

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

30. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure. Use this plot to choose the correct choice (s) given below.
Figure

(1) fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the range of 1 < A < 50 will release energy
(2) fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy
(3) fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into two equal fragments
(4) fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range of 200 < A < 260 will release energy when broken into two equal fragments

Sol. (Energy released) = Total B.E. of products - Total B.E. of reactants.
(2) and (4) are correct.

31. Two balls, having linear momenta undergo a collision in free space. There is not external force acting on the balls. Let be their final momenta. The following option (s) is (are) NOT ALLOWED for any non-zero value of p, a1, a2, b1, b2, c1 and c2.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1), (4)

(1) and (4) are correct.

32. In a Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the two slits is d and the wavelength of the light is . The intensity of light falling on slit 1 is four times the intensity of light falling on slit 2. Choose the correct choice(s),
(1) if d = , the screen will contain only one maximum
(2) if < src="http://goiit.com/templates/default/images/chapters/common/lam.gif" align="absmiddle">, at least one more maximum (besides the central maximum) will be observed on the screen
(3) if the intensity of light falling on slit 1 is reduced so that it becomes equal to that of slit 2, the intensities of the observed dark and bright fringes will increase
(4) if the intensity of light falling on slit 2 is reduced so that it becomes equal to that of slit 1, the intensities of the observed dark and bright fringes will increase.

Ans : (2)

33. A particle of mass m and charge q, moving with velocity V enters Region II normal to the boundary as shown in the figure. Region II has a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The length of the Region II is l . Choose the correct choice(s)
Figure :

(1) the particle enters Region III only if its velocity
(2) the particle enters Region III only if its velocity
(3) path length of the particle in Region II is maximum when velocity
(4) time spent in Region II is same for any velocity V as long as the particle returns to Region I.

Ans : (4)

SECTION III
Assertion - Reason Type

This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

34. STATEMENT - 1
Two cylinders, one hollow (metal) and the other solid (wood) with the same mass and identical dimensions are simultaneously allowed to roll without slipping down an inclined plane from the same height. The hollow cylinder will reach the bottom of the inclined plane first.
because
STATEMENT - 2
By the principle of conservation of energy, the total kinetic energies of both the cylinders are identical when they reach the bottom of the incline.
(1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False.
(4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True.

Ans : (4)

35. STATEMENT - 1
The stream of water flowing at high speed from a garden hose pipe tends to spread like a fountain when held vertically up, but tends to narrow down when held vertically down.
because
STATEMENT - 2
In any steady flow of an incompressible fluid, the volume flow rate of the fluid remains constant.
(1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False.
(4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True.

Sol.
As the water stream moves up, its speed decreases (due to gravity) and since flow rate (= Av) remains constant, the area increases making it spread like a fountain. The reverse is true when it moves down.
Both Statements are correct and Statement-2 is a correct explanation of Statement-1.
(1) is correct.

36. STATEMENT - 1
In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher temperature. The null point can be obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of the standard resistance.
because
STATEMENT - 2
Resistance of a metal increases with increase in temperature.
(1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False.
(4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True.

Ans : (4)

When unknown resistance is put in an enclosure maintained at a higher temperature, RX will increase. To keep the null point same, RS has to be increased.
Statement-1 is false.
(4) is correct.

37. STATEMENT - 1
An astronaut in an orbiting space station above the Earth experiences weightlessness.
because
STATEMENT - 2
An object moving around the Earth under the influence of Earth's gravitational force is in a state of free-fall.
(1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1.
(3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False.
(4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True.

Ans : (1)
Statement-1 is correct and so is Statement-2. Both the astronaut and space station are in a state of free fall.
(1) is correct.

Section IV

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 to 40

A small block of mass M moves on a frictionless surface of an inclined plane, as show in figure. The angle of the incline suddenly changes from 60º to 30º at point B. The block is initially at rest at A. Assume that collision between the block and the incline are totally inelastic (g = 10 m/s2).
Figure :

38. The speed of the block at point B immediately after it strikes the second incline is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2)
At B before collision at an angle of 30º with downward vertical.
Hence component of v0 along BC = v0 cos 30º
impact force acts along the normal to the plane, hence v0 cos 30º will not change and component of v0
perpendicular to the plane becomes zero as collision is completely inelastic.
(3) is correct.

39. The speed of the block at point C immediately before it leaves the second incline is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2)

40. If collision between the block and the incline is completely elastic, then the vertical (upward) component of the velocity of the block at point B, immediately after it strikes the second incline is
(1)
(2)
(3) 0
(4)

Ans :
Velocity after collision

Paragraph for Question Nos. 41 to 43

A small spherical monoatomic ideal gas bubble is trapped inside a liquid of density l (see figure). Assume that the bubble does not exchange any heat with eth liquid. The bubble contains n moles of gas. The temperature of the gas when the bubble is at the bottom is T0, the height of the liquid is H and the atmospheric pressure is P0 (Neglect surface tension).
Figure :

41. As the bubble moves upwards, besides the buoyancy force the following forces are acting on it
(1) only the force of gravity
(2) the force due to gravity and the force due to the pressure of the liquid
(3) the force due to gravity, the force due to the pressure of the liquid and the force due to viscosity of the liquid
(4) the force due to gravity and the force due to viscosity of the liquid.

Sol. Besides the buoyancy force, the other forces are
(i) force of gravity, and
(ii) force due to viscosity
The buoyant force is due to the pressure of the liquid.
(4) is correct.

42. When the gas bubble is at a height y from the bottom, its temperature is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2)
For the gas inside the bubble, the adiabatic equation TY P1-Y = constant applies

43. The buoyancy force acting on the gas bubble is (Assume R is the universal gas constant)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (2)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 44 to 46

In a mixture of H - He+ gas (He+ is singly ionized He atom), H atoms and He+ ions are excited to their respective first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions). Assume that the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid.

44. The quantum number n of the state finally populated in He+ ions is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

Ans : (3)
The excitation energy of the H atoms
= - 3.4 - (- 13.6) = 10.2 eV
Energy of the He+ ions in their first excited state
= - 3.4 × 4 = - 13.6 eV
Energy after transferrence of energy
= - 13.6 + 10.2 = - 3.4 eV.
Now let n be the quantum number of the final state of He+ ions, then

45. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He+ ions after collisions with H atoms is
(1) 6.5 × 10-7 m
(2) 5.6 × 10-7 m
(3) 4.8 × 10-7 m
(4) 4.0 × 10-7 m

Ans : (3)

46. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electron for the H atom to that of He+ ion is
(1)
(2)
(3) 1
(4) 2

Ans :
Kinetic energy of n = 2 electron for H atom = 3.4 eV
Kinetic energy of n = 2 electron for He+ ion = 3.4 × 4 eV

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

47. The major product of the following reaction is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1)
In DMF solvent SN1 being not possible, SN2 takes place resulting into inversion of configuration.

48. Hperconjugation involves overlap of the following orbitals
(1) -
(2) - p
(3) p - p
(4) -

Ans : (3)
Hyperconjuation is - , - odd e- and - cationic carbon conjugation and it results into bond formation by p - p overlap.

49. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives
(1) Na2S4O6
(2) NaHSO4
(3) NaCl
(4) NaOH

Ans : (2)

50. Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of
(1) nitrogen
(2) oxygen
(3) carbon dioxide
(4) argon

Ans : (2)

51. M HCl in water at 25°C. the concentration of H+ at equivalence point is (Kw = 1 × 10-14 at 25°C)
(1) 3.7 × 10-13M
(2) 3.2 × 10-7M
(3) 3.2 × 10-2 M
(4) 2.7 × 10-2M

Ans : (3)

52. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm-3 of a substance becomes half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero order kinetics, respectively. Ratio of the rate constants for first order (k1) and zero order (k0) of the reaction is
(1) 0.5 mol-1 dm3
(2) 1.0 mol dm-3
(3) 1.5 mol dm-3
(4) 2.0 mol-1 dm3

Ans : (1)

SECTION - II

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

53. The correct statement(s) concerning the structures E, F and G is (are)

(1) E, F and G are resonance structures
(2) E, F and E, G are tautomers
(3) F and G are geometrical isomers
(4) F and G are diastereomeers

Ans : (2), (3), (4)
F is the enol form of E and so is also G for E. F and G are also geometrical isomers.

54. The correct statement(s) about the compound given below is (are)

(1) The compound is optically active
(2) The compound possesses centre of symmetry
(3) The compound possesses plane of symmetry
(4) The compound possesses axis of symmetry

Ans : (1)
Two chiral centres are of same configurations and hence optically active.

55. A gas described by van der Waals equation
(1) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar volumes
(2) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large pressure
(3) is characterized by van der Waals coefficients that are dependent on the identity of the gas but are independent of the temperature
(4) has the pressure that is lower than the pressure exerted by the same gas behaving ideally

Ans : (1), (3), (4)

(for mole of an ideal gas). Due to inward pull acting on molecule striking the wall, the pressure decreases. The van der Waal's constants ''a'' and ''b'' are characteristics of a gas and as per van der Waal's they are temperature independent.

56. A solution of colourless salt H on boiling with excess NaOH produces a non-flammable gas. The gas evolution ceases after sometime. Upon addition of Zn dust to the same solution, the gas evolution restarts. The colourless salt(s) H is (are)
(1) NH4NO3
(2) NH4NO2
(3) NH4Cl
(4) (NH4)2SO4

Ans : (1), (2)

SECTION - III
Assertion - Reason Type

This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

57. STATEMENT-1: The plot of atomic number (y-axis versus number of neutrons (x-axis) for stable nuclei shows a curvature towards x-axis from theline of 45° slope as the atomic number is increased.
and
STATEMENT-2: Proton-proton electrostatic repulsions begin to overcome attractive forces involving protons and neutrons in heavier nuclides.
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (1)
When Z > 20, the number of neutron must increase above the number of protons so as to overcome protonproton repulsion

58. STATEMENT-1: For every chemical reaction at equilibrium, standard Gibbs energy of reaction is zero.
and
STATEMENT-2: At constant temperature and pressure, chemical reactions are spontaneous in the direction of decreasing Gibbs energy.
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (4)
G is minimum while G = 0 at equilibrium

59. STATEMENT-1: Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1, 4-dibromobenzeen as the major product.
and
STATEMENT-2: In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more dominant than the mesomeric effect in directing the incoming electrophile..
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (3)
In bromobenzene, inductive effect is responsible for deactivating the benzene nucleus and has no effect on directive influence. The directive influence is governed solely by mesomeeric effect.

60. STATEMENT-1: Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
and
STATEMENT-2: The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Ans : (3)
Sn and Pb both have ns2np2 configurations of their valence shells. Moving down a group, the ns electron pair becomes more and more inert towards bonding called inter pair effect. This is maximum in Pb. So Pb4+ tends to get reduced to Pb2+ i.e., Pb4+ is stronger oxidizing agent then Sn4+ in which the inert pair effect is relatively less.

SECTION - IV

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 61 to 63

Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are called colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixtures as anti-freezing liquid in the radiator of automobiles.
A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole fraction of ethanol in the mixture is 0.9

Standard freezing point of water = 273K
Standard freezing point of ethanol = 155.7 K
Standard boiling point of water = 373 K
Standard boiling point of ethanol = 351.5 K
Vapour pressure of pure water = 32.8 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of pure ethanol = 40 mm Hg
Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol-1
Molecular weight of ethanol = 46 g mol-1

In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute solutions and slutes to be non-volatile and non-dissociateive.

61. The freezing point of the solution M is
(1) 268.7 K
(2) 268.5 K
(3) 234.2 K
(4) 150.9 K

Ans : (4)

Tf of solution = 155.7 - 5 = 150.7K

62. The vapour pressure of the solution M is
(1) 39.3 mm Hg
(2) 36.0 mm Hg
(3) 29.5 mm Hg
(4) 28.8 mm Hg

Ans : (1)

63. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution becomes 0.9 The boiling point of this solution is
(1) 380.4 K
(2) 376.2 K
(3) 373.5 K
(4) 354.7 K

Ans : (2)

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 64 to 66

In the following reaction sequence product I, J and L are formed. K represents a reagent.

64. The structure of the product I is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

And : (4)

65. The structures of compound J and K, respectively, are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (1)

66. The structure of product L is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Ans : (3)

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 67 to 69

There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth's crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water. Nitrates re difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease of sigma donation capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white phosphorous.

67. Among the following, the correct statement is
(1) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(2) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth's crust
(3) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth's crust
(4) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil.

Ans : (3)
Nitrates being water soluble and as they get reduced by microbes so obviously its abundance will decrease.

68. Among the following, the correct statement is
(1) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical 's' orbital and is less directional
(2) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 si a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3 orbital and is more directional
(3) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3 orbital and is more directional
(4) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical 's' orbital and is less directional.

Ans : (3)
NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than PH3.

69. White phosphours on reaction with NaOH gives pH3 as one of the products. This is a
(1) dimerization reaction
(2) disproportionation reaction
(3) condensation reaction
(4) precipitation reaction

Ans : (2)